JKSSB Paramedical Assistant Question paper
- Match the drug with its major adverse effect: Column - A (Drug) i. Gentamicin ii. Phenytoin iii. Nifedipine iv. Captopril
Column - B (Adverse Effect)
a) Dry cough
b) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
c) Gingival hyperplasia
d) Flushing and ankle edema
Choose the correct option:
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
- Match the drug with the correct storage condition as per Indian pharmacopoeia: Column-A (Drug) i. Insulin injection ii. Nitroglycerin iii. Digoxin iv. Vitamin C tablet
Column-B (Storage Condition)
a) Store below 25°C (cool place)
b) Store in a light-resistant container
c) Store in a refrigerator (2°C to 8°C)
d) Store in a tightly closed container
Choose the correct option:
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
C) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
D) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
- Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated during pregnancy because of fetal renal toxicity? A) Labetalol B) Nifedipine C) Enalapril D) Methyldopa
- Which oral antidiabetic drug is contraindicated in severe renal impairment because of the risk of lactic acidosis? A) Metformin B) Pioglitazone C) Glibenclamide D) Voglibose
- The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is: A) Flumazenil B) Naloxone C) Atropine D) N-acetylcysteine
- A patient receiving warfarin should avoid concurrent use of: A) Vitamin C B) Aspirin C) Calcium carbonate D) Antacids
- Which insulin preparation has the fastest onset of action? A) Insulin lispro B) Regular insulin C) NPH insulin D) Insulin glargine
- Which antiemetic commonly produces extrapyramidal adverse effects? A) Ondansetron B) Domperidone C) Doxylamine D) Metoclopramide
- Consider the following statements regarding adverse drug reactions: I. Type A reactions are dose dependent. II. Type B reactions are unpredictable. III. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is generally considered a severe Type B reaction. IV. Type A reactions are usually unrelated to the pharmacological action of the drug. Which of the above statement is/are correct? A) I and II only B) II and IV only C) I, II and III only D) I, II, III and IV
- Which drug is most commonly used as a first-line agent for acute migraine headache relief? A) Paracetamol B) Sumatriptan C) Aspirin D) Diazepam
- The correct position for feeding a patient who is at risk of aspiration is: A) Supine position B) Left lateral position C) Fowler's position D) Trendelenburg position
- The "Korotkoff sounds" are auscultated during blood pressure measurement. The point at which the sound becomes muffled and then disappears corresponds to: A) Systolic blood pressure B) Diastolic blood pressure C) Pulse pressure D) Mean arterial pressure
- The recommended frequency for changing a patient's position to prevent pressure ulcers (bedsores) is: A) Every 1 hour B) Every 2 hours C) Every 3 hours D) Every 4 hours
- In the context of patient records, the abbreviation "SOAP" stands for: A) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan B) Symptom, Observation, Analysis, Prescription C) Subjective, Observation, Assessment, Procedure D) Status, Objective, Action, Plan
- The Indian standard for the classification of Biomedical Waste as per the Biomedical Waste Management Rules (2016) categorizes waste into how many categories? A) 4 categories B) 8 categories C) 10 categories D) 12 categories
- The "6-step" hand hygiene technique recommended by WHO for healthcare workers takes approximately how much time? A) 10 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 40 seconds D) 60 seconds
- "Nosocomial infection" means: A) Infection acquired in the community B) Infection due to food only C) Infection acquired in a healthcare facility D) Infection due to vaccination
- While making an occupied bed, the nurse should primarily: A) Remove all side rails B) Turn the patient every 30 minutes C) Keep the patient in a sitting position throughout D) Maintain proper body alignment and patient safety
- The cuff width of a blood pressure apparatus should ideally be approximately: A) 20% of arm circumference B) 40% of arm circumference C) 60% of arm circumference D) Equal to arm circumference
- The single most effective measure to prevent healthcare-associated infections is: A) Hand hygiene B) Wearing shoe covers C) Routine antibiotic prophylaxis D) Daily fumigation
- The minimum recommended duration for alcohol-based hand rub is approximately: A) 5-10 seconds B) 10-15 seconds C) 20-30 seconds D) 60 seconds
- The abbreviation "P/A" (or "P/A view") in a radiology report indicates: A) Postero-anterior view B) Per abdomen examination C) Pulmonary angiography D) Primary assessment
- In a patient's discharge summary, the term "DAMA" stands for: A) Discharge with Advanced Medical Assistance B) Discharge After Medical Assessment C) Discharge and Medical Authorization D) Discharge Against Medical Advice
- Match the following patient record types with their correct retention periods as per Indian regulations: Column - A (Record Type) i. Inpatient medical record ii. Outpatient (OPD) record iii. Medicolegal records (MLR)
Column - B (Retention Period)
a) 3 years from the date of last consultation
b) 5 years from the date of discharge
c) 3 years from the date of discharge
Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
B) i-c, ii-b, iii-a
C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
- In a patient's case sheet, "N/V" commonly stands for: A) No visit B) Normal vision C) Nausea and vomiting D) Night voltage
- The recommended order of draw for blood collection using a vacuum tube system (as per CLSI guidelines) places which tube first? A) Sodium citrate (light blue top) - coagulation studies B) Serum separator tube (SST - gold top) C) EDTA (lavender top) - hematology D) Blood culture bottle (aerobic)
- The anticoagulant EDTA (Ethylene Diamine Tetraacetic Acid) acts by: A) Binding to calcium ions, preventing coagulation B) Binding to magnesium ions, preventing platelet aggregation C) Binding to thrombin, inhibiting fibrin formation D) Binding to vitamin K, inhibiting clotting factor synthesis
- The site of choice for venipuncture in adults is the: A) Dorsal venous arch B) Basilic vein C) Median cubital vein D) Cephalic vein
- The principle of the Sahli's acid hematin method for hemoglobin estimation is based on: A) Alkaline hematin formation B) Cyanmethemoglobin formation C) Acid hematin formation, which is compared to a brown color standard D) Oxyhemoglobin formation measured spectrophotometrically
- The blood group antigen "D" in the Rh system is also known as: A) Rh factor (Rho) B) Rh antigen C C) Rh antigen E D) Kell antigen
- The normal specific gravity of urine is: A) 1.001 - 1.010 B) 1.005 - 1.025 C) 1.015 - 1.030 D) 1.025 - 1.040
- The Leishman stain, commonly used for peripheral blood smears, contains which two dyes in a single solution? A) Methylene blue and eosin B) Methylene blue and fuchsin C) Crystal violet and iodine D) Haematoxylin and eosin
- When handling a compound microscope, the focusing knob that should be used only with the low-power objective (4x or 10x) and never with the high-power (100x oil immersion) objective is: A) Coarse adjustment knob B) Fine adjustment knob C) Condenser knob D) Aperture diaphragm lev
- The principle of a microscope's resolving power (resolution) is determined by the numerical aperture (NA) of the objective lens and the wavelength (\lambda) of light used, as described by Abbe's formula. The Abbe's formula is: A) Resolving power = \text{NA} \times \lambda B) Resolving power = 2 \times \text{NA} / \lambda C) Resolving power = \lambda / (2 \times \text{NA}) D) Resolving power = \text{NA} / \lambda
- The anticoagulant-to-blood ratio recommended for routine coagulation testing using trisodium citrate is: A) 1:4 B) 1:5 C) 1:9 D) 1:10
- Agglutination of red cells with anti-A serum but not with anti-B serum indicates blood group: A) A B) B C) AB D) O
- The reagent commonly used for detecting urinary protein by the heat coagulation test is: A) Benedict's reagent B) Ehrlich's reagent C) Fouchet's reagent D) Acetic acid
- The urinary ketone body principally detected by Rothera's test is: A) Acetone only B) \beta-Hydroxybutyrate only C) Acetoacetate D) Pyruvate
- The ideal angle between the spreader slide and the glass slide during peripheral blood smear preparation is approximately: A) 5-10° B) 15-20° C) 30-45° D) 70-80°
- The biological indicator used to monitor steam sterilization in an autoclave contains spores of: A) Bacillus atrophaeus B) Clostridium tetani C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus D) Bacillus anthracis
- The X-ray beam emerging from the X-ray tube is heterogeneous (polyenergetic). The process of removing low-energy X-rays from the beam to increase the average energy and reduce patient skin dose is called: A) Collimation B) Filtration C) Grid usage D) Scatter reduction
- The maximum permissible annual radiation dose limit for a radiation worker (occupational exposure) as recommended by the International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP) is: A) 1 mSv/year B) 20 mSv/year C) 50 mSv/year D) 100 mSv/year
- The principle of ultrasound imaging relies on the transmission and reception of sound waves. The frequency range used for diagnostic medical ultrasound is typically: A) 1 - 5 MHz B) 2 - 18 MHz C) 20 - 40 MHz D) 100 - 200 MHz
- In an abdominal X-ray, the presence of free air under the diaphragm in an erect film is indicative of: A) Normal bowel gas pattern B) Intestinal obstruction C) Ascites D) Perforated hollow viscus
- The "closed tube" or "closed cone" technique in ultrasound refers to the use of: A) A water bath for superficial structures B) A vaginal probe for pelvic imaging C) A stand-off pad for small parts imaging D) A transesophageal probe for cardiac imaging
- The "lead apron" used during X-ray procedures protects the wearer from: A) Primary radiation only B) Scatter radiation C) Both primary and scatter radiation D) Radiation-induced electromagnetic interference
- Match the radiological sign with its correct diagnostic interpretation: Column-A (Sign) i. Air bronchogram ii. Deep sulcus sign iii. Meniscus sign iv. Air-fluid levels
Column-B (Interpretation)
a) Pneumothorax
b) Lobar consolidation
c) Bowel obstruction
d) Pleural effusion
Choose the correct option:
A) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
C) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
D) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
- Match the patient position with the correct radiological projection: Column-A (Position) i. Standing against cassette, facing cassette ii. Lying supine, X-ray tube below the cassette iii. Lying on side, X-ray beam horizontal iv. Standing with back to cassette, facing X-ray tube
Column-B (Projection)
a) AP projection
b) PA projection
c) Lateral decubitus
d) Lateral projection
Choose the correct option:
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
C) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
D) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
- Match the ultrasound term with its correct definition: Column-A (Term) i. Anechoic ii. Echogenic iii. Hypoechoic iv. Acoustic shadowing
Column-B (Definition)
a) Absence of echoes (black on image)
b) Having high amplitude echoes (bright)
c) Tissue that transmits sound well, with low echogenicity
d) Loss of echoes distal to a highly attenuating structure
Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
C) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
- In echocardiography (cardiac ultrasound), the most common patient position is: A) Supine with right arm raised B) Left lateral decubitus C) Prone D) Sitting upright
- The fundamental ethical principle that ensures a patient's right to make their own informed decisions regarding their medical care is: A) Justice B) Beneficence C) Autonomy D) Non-maleficence
- The term "iatrogenic" refers to: A) A disease caused by medical treatment B) A disease that is inherited from parents C) A disease that is self-inflicted D) A disease of unknown origin
- In medical report writing, the term "triage" refers to: A) The final diagnosis of a patient B) The medication reconciliation process C) The discharge summary of a patient D) The process of prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition
- In report writing, the most important characteristic is: A) Personal opinion B) Objectivity C) Comprehensive vocabulary D) Persuasive presentation
- In medical documentation, abbreviations should: A) Be used freely without explanation B) Replace all medical terminology C) Be standardized and unambiguous D) Never be used
- Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) The patient had took the medicine. B) The patient has taken the medicine. C) The patient were taking the medicine. D) The patient have took the medicine.
- Which ethical principle is best represented by "Do no harm"? A) Justice B) Beneficence C) Non-maleficence D) Fidelity
- In legal English, the phrase "force majeure" most accurately means: A) A minor contractual breach B) A criminal offense under the Indian Penal Code C) A voluntary termination of a contract D) An unforeseeable event that prevents performance of a contract
- In formal medical documentation, the abbreviation "c/o" correctly denotes: A) Care of B) Complains of C) Checked on D) Condition observed
- A healthcare professional who reports a medication error immediately despite the possibility of disciplinary action is primarily demonstrating: A) Beneficence B) Advocacy C) Altruism D) Accountability
- The primary organic component of bone matrix that provides tensile strength and resistance to torsion is: A) Hydroxyapatite crystals B) Calcium phosphate C) Type I collagen D) Osteocalcin
- According to the alveolar gas equation, the alveolar partial pressure of oxygen (\text{PAO}_2) is directly influenced by which of the following parameters? A) Arterial \text{PCO}_2 B) Mixed venous \text{PO}_2 C) Respiratory exchange ratio D) Pulmonary capillary blood flow
- The plateau phase (Phase 2) of the ventricular action potential is primarily maintained by a balance between which two ionic currents? A) Inward \text{Na}^+ and outward \text{K}^+ B) Inward \text{Ca}^{2+} and outward \text{K}^+ C) Inward \text{Na}^+ and outward \text{Cl}^- D) Inward \text{Ca}^{2+} and inward \text{Na}^+
- The second heart sound (S2) is produced by: A) Closure of the atrioventricular valves during ventricular systole B) Opening of the semilunar valves during ventricular systole C) Closure of the semilunar valves during ventricular diastole D) Opening of the atrioventricular valves during ventricular diastole
- The enterohepatic circulation of bile salts is essential for maintaining the bile salt pool. Which specific transporter located on the basolateral membrane of hepatocytes is responsible for the uptake of conjugated bile salts from portal blood? A) NTCP (Sodium-Taurocholate Co-transporting Polypeptide) B) BSEP (Bile Salt Export Pump) C) OATP (Organic Anion Transporting Polypeptide) D) MRP2 (Multidrug Resistance Protein 2)
- The cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion is mediated by the vagus nerve and accounts for approximately 30% of the total acid response to a meal. The vagal efferent fibers stimulate acid secretion by directly acting on which receptor on the parietal cell? A) CCK-2 receptor B) H2 receptor C) M3 muscarinic receptor D) GIP receptor
- In a resting neuron, the membrane potential is maintained at approximately -70 mV primarily due to: A) \text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+ ATPase pump activity B) High membrane permeability to \text{K}^+ and low permeability to \text{Na}^+ C) High intracellular concentration of \text{Cl}^- D) Active transport of \text{Ca}^{2+} out of the cell
- Which bone is categorized as an "irregular bone" and contains unique structures known as facets for costal cartilage? A) Sphenoid bone B) Sternum C) Thoracic vertebra D) Maxillary bone
- In smooth muscle contraction, calcium ions initiate the process by binding to which regulatory protein, which then activates myosin light-chain kinase? A) Troponin C B) Tropomyosin C) Caldesmon D) Calmodulin
- The Vagus nerve provides autonomic motor control to several organs. Which of the following is a function of the Vagus nerve? A) Secretion of tears B) Constriction of the pupil C) Movement of the head and pectoral girdle D) Constriction of respiratory passageways
- The irreversible phase of ischemic cell injury is marked by the loss of mitochondrial function and the inability to regenerate ATP. This leads to the uncontrolled influx of which ion, ultimately causing the activation of phospholipases and endonucleases? A) Sodium (\text{Na}^+) B) Chloride (\text{Cl}^-) C) Calcium (\text{Ca}^{2+}) D) Potassium (\text{K}^+)
- The peptidoglycan layer of Gram-positive bacteria is composed of alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) residues cross-linked by peptide bridges. The enzyme that cleaves the \beta-1,4 glycosidic bond between NAG and NAM is: A) Penicillin-Binding Protein (PBP) B) Autolysin C) Lysozyme D) Transpeptidase
- The bacterial endotoxin, lipopolysaccharide (LPS), is a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. The toxic moiety responsible for the pyrogenic and shock-inducing properties of LPS is: A) O-antigen polysaccharide B) Core oligosaccharide C) Porin proteins D) Lipid A
- The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to identify acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in clinical specimens. The cell wall component that confers acid-fastness to Mycobacterium tuberculosis is: A) Lipoteichoic acid B) Mycolic acid C) Peptidoglycan D) Lipoarabinomannan (LAM)
- A throat swab is collected for the diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis. The swab should be collected from which anatomical site to maximize the recovery of Streptococcus pyogenes? A) Posterior pharyngeal wall and tonsillar crypts B) Buccal mucosa C) Tongue surface D) Anterior nasal cavity
- Which disinfectant acts by releasing nascent oxygen? A) Glutaraldehyde B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Phenol D) Chlorhexidine
- The causative organism of gas gangrene is: A) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium perfringens C) Bacillus anthracis D) Clostridioides difficile
- The fungal cell wall contains ergosterol as the principal sterol in the plasma membrane. Which antifungal agent exerts its fungicidal effect by binding directly to ergosterol and forming pores in the fungal membrane? A) Fluconazole B) Caspofungin C) Flucytosine D) Amphotericin B
- The predominant leukocyte in the acute inflammatory response that arrives within the first 6-24 hours at the site of injury is the: A) Neutrophil B) Macrophage C) Lymphocyte D) Eosinophil
- Which of the following is classified as an opportunistic pathogen? A) Vibrio cholerae B) Candida albicans C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae D) Salmonella Typhi
- In the hexokinase method for blood glucose estimation, glucose is first converted to: A) Glucosamine B) Glucose-6-phosphate C) Fructose-6-phosphate D) Glycogen
- Which principle is fundamentally used in colorimetric estimation of serum analytes like glucose, cholesterol, and creatinine? A) Nernst equation B) Beer-Lambert law C) Faraday's law D) Ohm's law